A&P Final practice

The structural and functional center of the entire nervous system is the _____ nervous system.
A. peripheral
B. autonomic
C. afferent
D. central D
Nerves that originate from the brain are called _____ nerves.
A. cranial
B. peripheral
C. afferent
D. spinal A
The somatic nervous system carries information to the:
A. brain.
B. visceral effectors.
C. skeletal muscles.
D. autonomic effectors. C
The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into the __________ divisions.
A. parasympathetic and sympathetic
B. parasympathetic and autonomic
C. sympathetic and autonomic
D. visceral sensory and somatic sensory A
Excitable cells that conduct the impulses are called:
A. glia cells.
B. neurons.
C. astrocytes.
D. Schwann cells. B
The _____ of a neuron is a single process that usually extends from a tapered portion of the cell body.
A. dendrite
B. neurofibril
C. axon
D. Nissl body C
Which of the following is not a structural classification of neurons?
A. Bipolar
B. Unipolar
C. Multipolar
D. Polar D
A signal conduction route to and from the central nervous system is a (an):
A. reflex arc.
B. afferent pathway.
C. efferent pathway.
D. feedback loop. A
Bundles of myelinated fibers make up the:
A. gray matter of the nervous system.
B. ganglia.
C. white matter of the nervous system.
D. motor nerves. C
Neurons have:
A. complete regeneration capacity.
B. no regeneration capacity.
C. very limited capacity to repair themselves.
D. none of the above. C
A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be:
A. bipolarized.
B. multipolarized.
C. unipolarized.
D. polarized. D
The membrane potential maintained by a nonconducting neuron’s plasma membrane is called the _____ membrane potential.
A. action
B. polarized
C. conduction
D. resting D
The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the:
A. ion pump.
B. sodium-potassium pump.
C. chloride channel.
D. sodium-potassium channel. B
An ion channel that opens in response to a sensory stimulus is a (an):
A. ionic channel.
B. sodium-potassium channel.
C. stimulus-gated channel.
D. local potential. C
A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is:
A. stimulus.
B. nerve impulse.
C. repolarization.
D. depolarization. B
The brief period during which a local area of an axon’s membrane resists restimulation is called the __________ period.
A. refractory
B. resting
C. action
D. repolarization A
The action potential seems to “leap” from node to node along a myelinated fiber. This type of impulse regeneration is called __________ conduction.
A. refractory
B. sensory
C. action potential
D. salutatory D
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse.
A. mechanical
B. sensory
C. chemical
D. sonic C
Which chemicals allow neurons to communicate with one another?
A. Neurofibrils
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Sensory transmitters
D. Glial transmitters B
Which neurotransmitter is unique because of its chemical structure: acetate (acetyl-coenzyme-A) with choline?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Acetate
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. Acetyl coenzyme A A
A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called a(n):
A. Motor neuron
B. Sensory neuron
C. Bipolar neuron
D. Interneuron B
Which type of cell specializes in acting as a microbe-eating scavenger?
A. Astrocyte
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Schwann cell B
The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to skeletal (voluntary) muscle is the:
A. Somatic nervous system
B. Autonomic nervous system
C. Afferent nervous system
D. Central nervous system A
The myelin sheath is formed by:
A. Nissl bodies
B. Nodes of Ranvier
C. Schwann cells
D. Neuron cell bodies C
Along a neuron, the correct pathway for impulse conduction is:
A. Dendrite, axon, and receptor
B. Dendrite, cell body, and axon
C. Axon, cell body, and dendrite
D. Receptor, axon, and cell body B
A synapse consists of:
A. A synaptic knob
B. A synaptic cleft
C. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron
D. All of the above D
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n):
A. Cell body
B. Axon
C. Dendrite
D. Cell body, axon, or dendrite B
A lack of this neurotransmitter is associated with Parkinson disease.
A. Norepinephrine
B. Endorphins
C. Dopamine
D. Enkephalins C
Interneurons reside:
A. In the CNS and peripheral nervous system.
B. In the CNS only.
C. In the peripheral nervous system only.
D. None of the above. B
Dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin are neurotransmitters that are classified as:
A. Acetylcholines
B. Neuropeptides
C. Catecholamines
D. None of the above C
The perikaryon is another name for the axon of a nervous cell.
FALSE=The perikaryon is another name for the cell body of a nervous cell
Bundles of fibers, called fascicles, are held together by a layer of connective tissue layer called the perineurium.
Acetylcholine is a small-molecule neurotransmitter that is found in various locations in the nervous system.
A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be polarized and can be measured by a device called a voltmeter.
Schwann cells are found throughout the nervous system. They support nerve fibers and sometimes form a myelin sheath around them.
FALSE=Schwann Cells are found only in the peripheral nervous system
In myelinated fibers, action potentials in the membrane only occur at the nodes of Ranvier. This type of impulse conduction is called __________conduction
The membrane potential maintained by a nonconducting neuron’s plasma membrane is called the _________________________________ (3 words).
Resting membrane potential (RMP)
_________ help regulate neuron growth but can also act as neurotransmitters.
_____________(2 words) is characterized by the destruction of oligodendrocytes, resulting in demyelination throughout the white matter of the CNS.
Multiple Sclerosis
The neural pathway involved in the patellar or “knee jerk” reflex is known as the ____________ (2 words).
Reflex Arc
Which of the following is not a function of the central nervous system (CNS)?
A. Integrating sensory information
B. Evaluating the information
C. Initiating an outgoing response
D. All of the above are functions of the CNS. D
The innermost layer of the meninges is the:
A. Pia mater
B. Arachnoid
C. Dura mater
D. Ventricle A
The main divisions of the central nervous system are the:
A. Brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves
B. Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
C. Brain and spinal cord
D. Brain, peripheral nerves, and autonomic nerves C
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the:
A. Central canal
B. Choroid plexus
C. Subarachnoid space
D. Arachnoid villi B
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal and ________, and is absorbed back into the blood.
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Choroid plexus
C. Spinal cord
D. Interventricular foramen A
Several vital centers are located in the:
A. Basal ganglion
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla D
Impulses from the _________ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum.
A. Pons
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebellum
D. Hypothalamus B
The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except::
A. Coordinating control of muscle action
B. Helping control posture
C. Controlling cardiac function
D. Controlling skeletal muscles to maintain balance C
The part of the brain that can influence the release of hormones of the endocrine system is the:
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla
D. Pons B
Paralysis of both legs is called:
A. Hemiplegia
B. Paraplegia
C. Triplegia
D. Quadriplegia B
Which of the following is not a primary function of the cerebrum?
A. Willed movements
B. Memory
C. Sensory perception
D. Appetite D
The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which is the “timekeeping hormone.”
An important pair of cerebellar nuclei is the dentate nuclei, one of which lies in each hemisphere.
The right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum specialize in different functions and this is known as convolution.
The spinal cord is approximately 10 inches long and extends to the 3rd lumbar vertebra.
Both the subjective and objective expression of emotions involves the cerebrum’s _________ ________(2 words).
Limbic system
The white matter of the spinal cord is composed primarily of_______axons.
The ________ space is located immediately outside the dura mater but inside the bony coverings of the spinal cord.
Chronic seizure episodes are referred to as ________.
Two sensory pathways conduct impulses that produce sensations of touch and pressure. They are the medial lemniscal system and the ___________ __________ (2 words).
Spinothalamic pathway
The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the:
A. Ninth cranial nerve
B. Tenth cranial nerve
C. Eleventh cranial nerve
D. Twelfth cranial nerve B
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue?
A. Olfactory
B. Trigeminal
C. Trochlear
D. Hypoglossal D
There are ______ pairs of spinal nerves.
A. 12
B. 21
C. 31
D. 41 C
Which of the following most accurately describes the kind of fibers found in spinal nerves?
A. Only sensory fibers
B. Only motor fibers
C. Completely autonomic fibers
D. Motor and sensory fibers D
The abducens cranial nerve innervates:
A. The sense of smell
B. Eye movements
C. Hearing
D. Shoulder movements B
Somatic responses consist of:
A. Contractions of smooth muscles
B. Contractions of cardiac muscles
C. Glandular contractions
D. Contractions of skeletal muscles D
Cranial nerves are part of the:
C. Diencephalon
D. Dermatomes B
Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves?
A. Cervical
B. Brachial
C. Lumbar
D. Thoracic D
A mixed nerve is one that:
A. Goes both to the skin surface and to the viscera
B. Has its pathway mixed with other nerves
C. Carries both sensory and motor fibers
D. Carries large and small motor fibers C
Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the __________nerve.
A. Trigeminal
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Hypoglossal A
Which of the following would not be an effector of the autonomic nervous system?
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Blood vessels
C. Sweat glands
D. The iris of the eye A
The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the:
A. Coordination of muscular activity
B. Innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera
C. Reception of sensory impulses
D. Arousal of alerting mechanisms B
Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because:
A. They reach visceral effectors faster than parasympathetic impulses.
B. Myoneural junctions contain a substance that inactivates acetylcholine.
C. Preganglionic fibers are short and postganglionic fibers are long.
D. Preganglionic fibers synapse with several postganglionic fibers. D
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except:
A. Contraction of the urinary bladder
B. Relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract
C. Increased salivation
D. Increased heart rate D
Norepinephrine is liberated at:
A. The dendrite ending
B. Parasympathetic preganglionic nerve endings
C. Most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
D. Sympathetic preganglionic nerve endings C
Which of the following does not describe the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Autonomic
B. Localized effect
C. Adrenergic
D. Norepinephrine B
All of the following belong to the autonomic nervous system except:
A. Parasympathetic
B. Norepinephrine
C. Somatic
D. Adrenergic C
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may:
A. Synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron
B. Send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia
C. Pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing
D. All of the above are correct D
Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except:
A. Direction of information flow
B. Location of peripheral fibers
C. Number of neurons between CNS and effector
D. Acetylcholine C
Which is/are the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Amines
C. Amino acids
D. Neuropeptides A
The inner protective covering of the brain is called the:
A. cranium.
B. meninges.
C. cerebrospinal fluid.
D. compact bone. B
The large fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called the:
A. meninges.
B. sulci.
C. gyri.
D. ventricles. D
Formation of the cerebrospinal fluid occurs in the:
A. ventricles.
B. meninges.
C. choroid plexus.
D. solar plexus. C
On each side of the spinal cord, the dorsal and ventral nerve roots join together to form a single mixed nerve cell called the:
A. cranial nerve.
B. ganglia.
C. spinal nerve.
D. ventral nerve. C
Spinal cord tracts provide conduction paths to and from the brain. The tracts that conduct sensory impulses down the cord from the brain are called _____ tracts.
A. ascending
B. descending
C. lateral spinothalamic
D. spinocerebellar B
The three divisions of the brain that make up the brainstem are the:
A. medulla oblongata, thalamus, and pons.
B. medulla oblongata, thalamus, and midbrain.
C. medulla oblongata, midbrain, and pons.
D. medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum. C
The second largest part of the brain, located just below the posterior portion of the cerebrum, is the:
A. midbrain.
B. medulla oblongata.
C. cortex.
D. cerebellum. D
The _____ consists of several structures that lie beneath the thalamus and form the floor of the third ventricle and the lower part of its lateral walls.
A. hypothalamus
B. pons
C. cerebellum
D. diencephalons A
The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex is the:
A. longitudinal fissure.
B. central sulcus.
C. lateral fissure.
D. parietooccipital fissure. B
The most numerous cerebral tracts are the:
A. projection tracts.
B. association tracts.
C. commissural tracts.
D. cerebral nuclei. B
Many cerebral functions have a typical location. This fact is known as:
A. cerebral plasticity.
B. cerebral mapping.
C. cerebral localization.
D. neurophysiology. C
The reticular activating system maintains:
A. sleep rhythms.
B. consciousness.
C. unconsciousness.
D. sensory impulses. B
The limbic system integrates:
A. consciousness.
B. sleep.
C. emotion.
D. language. C
The cortex is capable of storing and retrieving information from both short-term and long-term:
A. consciousness.
B. memory.
C. consolidation.
D. pathways. B
The set of coordinated commands that control the programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the:
A. extrapyramidal tract.
B. pyramidal tract.
C. motor tract.
D. motor program. D
How many pairs of spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord?
A. 23
B. 13
C. 31
D. 32 C
The dorsal root of each spinal nerve is easily recognized by a swelling called the:
A. dorsal cavity.
B. dorsal root ganglion.
C. dorsal root plexus.
D. ventral root ganglion. B
The ventral rami of most spinal nerves subdivide to form complex networks called:
A. ganglia.
B. rami.
C. plexuses.
D. dermatomes. C
Each skin surface area supplied by sensory fibers of a given spinal nerve is a:
A. dermatome.
B. plexus.
C. myotome.
D. ramus. A
Mixed cranial nerves contain axons of:
A. sensory axons.
B. motor neurons.
C. sensory and motor neurons.
D. none of the above. C
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
A. Oculomotor
B. Trochlear
C. Trigeminal
D. Olfactory D
Tongue movement is controlled by which cranial nerve?
A. Oculomotor
B. Olfactory
C. Vagus
D. Hypoglossal D
The somatic motor system includes all the _____ motor pathways _____ the CNS.
A. involuntary; outside
B. voluntary; outside
C. voluntary; within
D. involuntary; within B
If the center of a reflex arc is the brain, the response it mediates is called a:
A. cranial reflex.
B. spinal reflex.
C. cranial reaction.
D. spinal reaction. A
A reflex consists of either a muscle contraction or a:
A. muscle stretch.
B. muscle relaxation.
C. glandular secretion.
D. glandular excretion. C
A subdivision of the nervous system that regulates involuntary effectors is the _____ nervous system.
A. somatic
B. peripheral
C. central
D. autonomic D
The effect of sympathetic stimulation on the urinary bladder is:
A. relaxation.
B. constriction.
C. dilation.
D. no effect. A
Axon terminals of autonomic neurons release either of two neurotransmitters:
A. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
B. norepinephrine and aldosterone.
C. norepinephrine and dopamine.
D. acetylcholine and aldosterone. A
Acetylcholine binds to _____ receptors.
A. adrenergic
B. beta
C. alpha
D. cholinergic D
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they:
A. have opposing effects.
B. continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors.
C. continually conduct impulses to the brain.
D. are hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. B
In the endocrine system, secreting cells send hormones to signal specific:
A. basal cells.
B. neurons.
C. target cells.
D. effector cells. C
Hormones can be classified as either:
A. steroid or nonsteroid.
B. protein or nonprotein.
C. cortisol or glycoprotein.
D. steroid or cortisol. A
In _____, one hormone produces the opposite effect of another hormone.
A. opposability
B. antagonism
C. permissiveness
D. synergism B
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Unused hormones are usually quickly excreted by the kidneys.
B. Unused hormones are usually quickly excreted by the large intestine.
C. Unused hormones usually stay in the bloodstream.
D. No hormones go unused. A
Because steroid hormone receptors are not attached to the plasma membrane but seem to move freely in the nucleoplasm, this model of hormone action has been called the _____ hypothesis.
A. second messenger
B. fixed-membrane-receptor
C. mobile-receptor
D. None of the above are correct. C
The control of hormonal secretion is usually part of a (an):
A. positive feedback loop.
B. negative feedback loop.
C. endocrine feedback loop.
D. endocrine reflex. B
_____ is a lipid molecule that has many functions and is rapidly metabolized so that circulating levels are extremely low.
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Adrenaline
C. Prostaglandin
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone C
The adenohypophysis is divided into which two parts?
A. Pars posterior and pars intermedia
B. Pars anterior and pars media
C. Pars anterior and pars intermedia
D. Pars posterior and pars media C
The stem-like stalk that connects the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus is the:
A. hypophysis.
B. adenohypophysis.
C. infundibulum.
D. neurohypophysis. C
Which hormone develops the breasts during pregnancy in anticipation of milk secretion?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Prolactin
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone B
The formation and activity of the corpus luteum is a result of the secretion of:
A. follicle-stimulating hormone.
B. prolactin.
C. luteinizing hormone.
D. adrenocorticotropic hormone. C
Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are stored and released by the:
A. adenohypophysis.
B. neurohypophysis.
C. hypophysis.
D. adrenal gland. B
The body’s “biological clock” is supported by the:
A. pituitary gland.
B. pineal gland.
C. thalamus.
D. thyroid gland. B
Which hormone increases calcium storage in bone?
A. Parathyroid
B. Tetraiodothyronine
C. Triiodothyronine
D. Calcitonin D
The primary function of aldosterone is:
A. calcium storage.
B. potassium homeostasis.
C. sodium homeostasis.
D. calcium homeostasis. C
_____ accelerate(s) the breakdown of proteins into amino acids.
A. Gonadocorticoids
B. Rennin
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Glucagon C
Which pancreatic hormone tends to promote the movement of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids out of the blood and into the tissue cells?
A. Somatostatin
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Pancreatic polypeptide C
The _____ serves as a temporary endocrine gland and produces human chorionic gonadotropin hormone.
A. ovary
B. testis
C. placenta
D. uterus C
The principal organ of the urinary system is the:
A. liver.
B. bladder.
C. kidney.
D. urethra. C
The branch of the abdominal aorta that brings blood into each kidney is the:
A. renal vein.
B. renal artery.
C. arcuate artery.
D. interlobular artery. B
The ureter of each kidney conducts urine inferiorly from the kidney to the:
A. urethra.
B. bladder.
C. prostate gland.
D. calyx. B
The mechanism for voiding urine begins with the voluntary relaxation of the:
A. internal sphincter muscle of the bladder.
B. urethra.
C. external sphincter muscle of the bladder.
D. detrusor muscle. C
The capillary network that is fitted neatly into Bowman’s capsule is the:
A. nephron.
B. renal corpuscle.
C. proximal convoluted tubule.
D. glomerulus. D
The _____ is a structure important in maintaining blood flow because it secretes rennin when blood pressure to the afferent arteriole drops.
A. loop of Henle
B. collecting tube
C. macula densa
D. juxtaglomerular apparatus
Urine is formed by the nephron by means of which three processes?
A. Filtration, secretion, and excretion
B. Filtration, reabsorption, and excretion
C. Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion
D. Reabsorption, secretion, and excretion C
Effective filtration pressure (EFP) is determined by comparing the forces that push fluid into the capillary with those that push:
A. fluid out of the capillary.
B. fluid back to the glomerulus.
C. urine into the bladder.
D. none of the above. A
Reabsorption takes place by means of _____ mechanisms.
A. active transport
B. passive transport
C. active and passive transport
D. None of the above are correct. C
The loop of Henle reabsorbs:
A. water.
B. sodium.
C. chloride.
D. all of the above. D
_____ has a central role in the regulation of urine volume.
B. Aldosterone
D. Plasma A
Urine is approximately 95%:
A. nitrogenous wastes.
B. electrolytes.
C. water.
D. hormones. C
Crystallized mineral chunks that develop in the renal pelvis or calyces are called:
A. gallstones.
B. kidney stones.
C. hydronephrosis.
D. sodium stones. B
The term that describes an inflammation of the bladder is:
A. hydronephrosis.
B. urethritis.
C. cystitis.
D. nephritis. C
General tissue swelling caused by an accumulation of fluids in the tissue spaces is called a (an):
A. hematoma.
B. thrombus.
C. embolus.
D. edema. D
Which of the following is not a function of muscles?
A. Storage
B. Posture
C. Heat production
D. Movement A
The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called:
A. excitability.
B. irritability.
C. contractibility.
D. extensibility. D
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the:
A. actin.
B. myosin.
C. myofibril.
D. sarcomere. D
This structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell.
A. Myosin
B. Actin
C. Transverse tubules
D. sarcoplasm C
The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin:
A. tropomyosin, and myofibril.
B. troponin, and myofibril.
C. troponin, and trypsin.
D. tropomyosin, and troponin. D
According to the sliding filament theory:
A. actin moves past myosin.
B. myosin moves past actin.
C. tropomyosin moves past actin.
D. troponin moves past myosin. A
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of:
Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called:
A. lactic acid.
B. glucose.
C. myoglobin.
The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the:
A. all-or-none principle.
B. summation.
C. tetanus.
D. threshold stimulus. D
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the:
A. latent period, contraction phase, and stimulation phase.
B. latent period, stimulation phase, and contraction phase.
C. latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase.
D. stimulation phase, contraction phase, and relaxation phase. C
Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in:
A. tetanus.
B. summation.
C. twitch contraction.
D. fatigue. D
Muscle tone is maintained by:
A. positive feedback mechanisms.
B. negative feedback mechanisms.
C. both positive and negative feedback mechanisms.
D. none of the above. B
A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an:
A. isometric contraction.
B. isotonic contraction.
C. isokinetic contraction.
D. isometric contraction and an isotonic contraction. A
Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called:
A. atrophy.
B. hypertrophy.
C. isometric.
D. isotonic. B
The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are:
A. conducted.
B. inactivated.
C. recruited.
D. retained. C
The muscle fibers are covered by a connective tissue membrane called the:
A. perimysium.
B. endomysium.
C. tendon.
D. aponeurosis. B
The fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the muscle organ and is outside the epimysium and tendon is called the:
A. aponeurosis.
B. tendon sheath.
C. endomysium.
D. fascia. D
The point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts is the:
A. insertion.
B. tendon.
C. ligament.
D. origin. D
The term _____ is used to describe a muscle that directly performs a specific movement.
A. antagonist
B. synergist
C. agonist
D. fixator C
The central body portion of the muscle is the:
A. tendon.
B. ligament.
C. belly.
D. lever. C
Superficial muscles are named according to:
A. location.
B. function.
C. shape and/or size.
D. all of the above. D
The occipitofrontalis muscle can be found in the:
A. face.
B. upper arm.
C. cranium.
D. lower leg. A
The external and internal oblique muscles can be found in the:
A. face.
B. abdominal wall.
C. cranium.
D. pelvic floor B
Which of the following muscles are referred to as the “rotator cuff” muscles?
A. Serratus anterior, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor
B. Levator scapulae, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and subscapularis
C. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, subscapularis, and trapezius
D. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor D
Muscles that move the wrist, hand, and fingers can be:
A. extrinsic or intrinsic.
B. extrinsic but not intrinsic.
C. intrinsic but not extrinsic.
D. only extrinsic. A
The tendon common to both the gastrocnemius and soleus is called the:
A. calcaneal.
B. peroneus longus.
C. peroneus brevis.
D. calcaneus. A
The continuous low level of sustained contraction maintained by all skeletal muscles is muscle:
A. summation.
B. posture.
C. tone.
D. tetanus. C
The human skeleton system consists of two divisions. They are the:
A. compact and spongy.
B. axial and cranial.
C. appendicular and cranial.
D. axial and appendicular. D
Which of the following is not in the appendicular skeleton?
A. Vertebrae
B. Tarsals
C. Femur
D. Clavicle A
Which of the following is a facial bone?
A. Zygomatic bone
B. Occipital bone
C. Parietal bone
D. All of the above A
Which of the following is not a bone in the leg?
A. Mandible
B. Femur
C. Fibula
D. Tibia A
The medial part of the anterior chest wall is supported by a dagger-shaped bone called the:
A. symphysis pubis.
B. sternum.
C. humerus.
D. carpal. B
Which of the following bones form the framework of the hand?
A. Metacarpals
B. Metatarsals
C. Carpals
D. Tarsals A
The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the:
A. hyoid bone.
B. tibia.
C. patella.
D. parietal. C
Which two bones compose the shoulder girdle?
A. Humerus and ulna
B. Ulna and clavicle
C. Clavicle and scapula
D. Humerus and scapula C
Anatomically speaking, which bones compose the wrist?
A. Carpals
B. Tarsals
C. Metacarpals
D. Metatarsals A
Which bone is the longest and heaviest bone in the body?
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Femur
D. Humerus C
Spongy bone is characterized by:
A. open space partially filled by an assemblage of needle-like structures.
B. a dense and solid appearance.
C. a soft and flexible gel-like appearance.
D. a dense and compact substance. A
Which of the following is not a type of bone?
A. Flat
B. Irregular
C. Short
D. Long
E. Regular E
The main shaft-like portion of a long bone is the:
A. epiphysis.
B. articular cartilage.
C. periosteum
D. diaphysis. D
The dense, white fibrous membrane that covers bone except at joint surfaces is the:
A. epiphysis.
B. articular cartilage.
C. periosteum.
D. diaphysis. C
The extracellular components of bone matrix are:
A. soft and calcified.
B. soft and decalcified.
C. hard and calcified.
D. hard and decalcified. C
An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is:
A. neoplasms.
B. Paget’s disease.
C. osteoporosis.
D. osteomalacia. C
Compact bone contains many cylinder-shaped structural units called:
A. lamellae.
B. lacunae.
C. canaliculi.
D. osteons. A
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are:
A. osteoclasts.
B. osteons.
C. osteoblasts.
D. osteocytes. C
Bone marrow is a specialized type of soft, diffuse connective tissue called:
A. myeloid tissue.
B. hyaline cartilage.
C. elastic cartilage.
D. fibrocartilage. A
The following are functions of bone except:
A. support.
B. protection.
C. mineral storage.
D. hematopoiesis.
E. all are functions of bone. E
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of these two hormones:
A. parathyroid and adrenaline.
B. parathyroid and calcitonin.
C. calcitonin and adrenaline.
D. calcitonin and aldosterone. B
Most bones of the body are formed from cartilage models in a process called:
A. intramembranous ossification.
B. osteogenesis.
C. histogenesis.
D. endochondral ossification. D
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when:
A. complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix.
B. complex calcium salts are removed.
C. calcium is replaced by phosphorus.
D. calcium is replaced by myeloid tissue. A
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis.
A. ossification plate
B. proliferating zone
C. zone of hypertrophy
D. epiphyseal plate D
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types?
A. Osteoblasts and osteocytes
B. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
C. Osteoclasts and osteocytes
D. Osteocytes and osteons B
Cartilage is classified as _____ tissue.
A. epithelial
B. muscle
C. nerve
D. connective D
The most common type of cartilage is:
A. elastic.
B. hyaline.
C. fibrocartilage.
D. chondrocytes. B
_____ fibers are present in all three types of cartilage, but they are most numerous in fibrocartilage.
A. Collagenous
B. Microtubules
C. Perichondrium
D. Elastin A
Fibrocartilage can be found in the:
A. articular surfaces.
B. middle ear.
C. nasal cavity.
D. symphysis pubis. D
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete:
A. additional calcium.
B. additional matrix.
C. less calcium.
D. less matrix. B
The two main layers that compose the skin are the dermis and:
A. superficial fascia.
B. subcutaneous.
C. epidermis.
D. hypodermis. C
The epidermis is composed of several types of epithelial cells. One type, called keratinocytes, become filled with a tough, fibrous protein called:
A. melanin.
B. keratin.
C. stratum lucidum.
D. eleidin. B
The dermis is composed of two layers, a thin papillary layer and a thick _____ layer.
A. reticular
B. epidermal
C. muscle
D. connective tissue A
Each hair follicle has a small bundle of involuntary muscles attached to it called the:
A. smooth muscle layer.
B. microvilli.
C. arrector pili muscles.
D. dermal papillae. C
The basic determinant of skin color is:
A. keratin.
B. mucus.
C. melanin.
D. tyrosine. C
Which of the following is not a function of the skin?
A. Sensation
B. Protection
C. Temperature regulation
D. Contraction D
The shedding of epithelial elements from the skin surface is called:
A. hydration.
B. buffering.
C. lubrication.
D. desquamation. D
Around the sixth month of pregnancy, the developing fetus is almost entirely covered by a fine soft hair coat called the:
A. lanugo.
B. papilla.
C. vellus.
D. sebum. A
The skin glands include three kinds of microscopic glands. They are the __________ glands.
A. sweat, eccrine, and sebaceous
B. sweat, sebaceous, and ceruminous
C. sweat, eccrine, and ceruminous
D. sebaceous, eccrine, and ceruminous B
The mixed secretions of sebaceous and ceruminous glands form a brown waxy substance called the:
A. sebum.
B. keratin.
C. melanin.
D. cerumen. D
Which of the following is not a principal type of tissue?
A. Cardiac
B. Epithelial
C. Nervous
D. Connective
E. Muscle A
After fertilization has occurred, repeated cell divisions soon convert the single-celled zygote into a hollow ball of cells called a (an):
A. fetus.
B. embryo.
C. blastocyst.
D. stem cell. C
What is the major function of epithelial tissue?
A. Transmission of impulse
B. Protection
C. Contraction
D. Support B
Stratified squamous (keratinized) epithelial cells are found in the:
A. epidermis.
B. dermis.
C. subcutaneous layer.
D. loose connective tissue layer. A
A lubricating substance produced by goblet cells is called:
A. mucus.
B. matrix.
C. plasma.
D. collagen. A
Which type of tissue has cube-shaped cells and can be found lining the kidney tubules?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Stratified squamous epithelium
C. Simple cuboidal epithelium
D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium D
All glands in the body can be classified as either:
A. exocrine or holocrine.
B. endocrine or holocrine.
C. exocrine or endocrine.
D. endocrine or apocrine. C
The most abundant and widespread tissue in the body is:
A. connective.
B. epithelial.
C. muscle.
D. nerve. A
The intercellular material in connective tissue is the:
A. elastin.
B. mucus.
C. matrix.
D. collagen. C
Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue?
A. Cardiac
B. Blood
C. Adipose
D. Cartilage A
Which of the following tissues lacks a direct blood supply and consequently heals very slowly?
A. Bone
B. Muscle
C. Adipose
D. Cartilage D
Which of the following contains osteocytes?
A. Striated muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Bone
D. Blood C
The strongest and most durable type of cartilage is:
A. hyaline.
B. fibrocartilage.
C. elastic.
D. chondrocytes. B
The tip of the nose and the external ear are composed of:
A. adipose tissue.
B. epithelium.
C. hyaline cartilage.
D. elastic cartilage. D
Adipose tissue is:
A. a storage tissue.
B. a muscle tissue.
C. held together by cartilage.
D. an epithelial tissue. A
What is the main function of muscle tissue?
A. Movement
B. Transmission of impulse
C. Support
D. Protection A
Which of the following contains intercalated disks?
A. Smooth muscle
B. Striated muscle
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Blood C
The conducting unit of the nerve tissue is the:
A. connector.
B. dendrite.
C. axon.
D. neuron. D
The growth of functional new tissue is called:
A. degeneration.
B. regeneration.
C. histogenesis.
D. ossification. B
The connective tissue membranes that line the spaces between bones and joints are called _____ membranes.
A. mucous
B. cutaneous
C. serous
D. synovial D
Diffusion can be defined as:
A. the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
B. the movement of water across a membrane that permits free movement of water, but not solutes.
C. an excretory process.
D. a process in which cells engulf particles. A
Diffusion moves:
A. up a concentration gradient.
B. down a concentration gradient.
C. equally within a concentration gradient.
D. all of the above are correct. B
Osmosis can be defined as:
A. the net movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
B. an excretory process.
C. a process in which cells engulf particles.
D. the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. A
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure.
A. hydrostatic
B. barometric
C. facilitated
D. osmotic D
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen?
A. Nothing will happen.
B. Water will move into the cells.
C. Water will move out of the cells.
D. Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates. D
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is:
A. hypertonic.
B. isotonic.
C. hypotonic.
D. osmotic. A
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it:
A. does not depend on cell energy.
B. transports material only inward.
C. transports material only outward.
D. cannot transport negative ions such as Cl-. A
Which of the following is an active transport process?
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Endocytosis
D. Osmosis C
The cell process that involves microorganisms or other large particles being engulfed is called:
A. pinocytosis.
B. secretion.
C. phagocytosis.
D. endocytosis. C
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a (an):
A. substrate.
B. activator.
C. catalyst.
D. inhibitor. C
Proteins that act as catalysts are called:
A. substrates.
B. enzymes.
C. inhibitors.
D. activators. B
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a (an):
A. substrate.
B. end product inhibition.
C. allosteric effector.
D. proenzyme. C
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell?
A. Mitochondria
B. Plasma membrane
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleus C
If oxygen is available, the pyruvic acid molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration called the:
A. electron transport system.
B. citric acid cycle.
C. lock and key model.
D. chemiosmosis cycle. B
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is:
A. carbon dioxide.
B. water.
C. oxygen.
D. hydrogen ions. C
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the:
A. nitrogen base.
B. phosphate groups.
C. five-carbon sugar.
D. hydrogen bond. A
RNA makes proteins by:
A. transcription.
B. translation.
C. replication.
D. duplication. B
The two processes of protein synthesis are:
A. transcription and translation.
B. replication and duplication.
C. transcription and replication.
D. translation and duplication. A
Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except:
A. prophase.
B. anaphase.
C. metaphase.
D. karyophase.
E. telophase. D
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis?
A. Four haploid gametes
B. A reduction division
C. Two steps of cell division
D. Two haploid gametes D
The inside of the cell is composed largely of a gel-like substance called:
A. cytoplasm.
B. organelles.
C. nucleus.
D. nucleoplasm. A
The outer boundary of a human cell is called the:
A. cytoplasm.
B. plasma membrane.
C. nucleus.
D. cell perimeter. B
A major function of the cell membrane is to:
A. adhere to adjacent cells.
B. manufacture proteins.
C. control what enters and leaves the cell.
D. produce nucleic acids. C
In the matrix of the plasma membrane, a variety of proteins are embedded. Some of these proteins serve as passages for Na+ ions or glucose. These proteins are called:
A. receptor proteins.
B. transport proteins.
C. signal proteins.
D. amino acids. B
An organelle is a:
A. small part of an organ.
B. group of tissues working together.
C. group of organized cells.
D. tiny structure found in the cytoplasm. D
Ribosomes are organelles that:
A. are attached to the Golgi apparatus.
B. float in the cytoplasm and attach to the endoplasmic reticulum.
C. are found only in the nucleus.
D. float in the cytoplasm and attach to the centrioles. B
The interior of which organelle contains various kinds of enzymes capable of breaking down all of the main components of the cell?
A. Lysosome
B. Centrosome
C. Ribosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum A
Which organelle is involved in processing and packaging proteins for export out of the cell?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Lysosome
C. Ribosome
D. Golgi apparatus D
Often referred to as the “power plant” of the cell, which organelle is the site of ATP production?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Peroxisome
C. Lysosome
D. Mitochondrion D
Which of the following is not part of the cytoskeleton?
A. Chromosomes
B. Microtubules
C. Microfilaments
D. Intermediate fibers A
Which area of the cytoplasm near the nucleus coordinates the building and breaking of microtubules in the cell?
A. Peroxisome
B. Chromosome
C. Centrosome
D. Lysosome C
Which of the following is a type of cell extension that lines the intestines and other areas of the body?
A. Cilia
B. Flagella
C. Microvilli
D. Microfilaments C
A spherical membrane-bound structure that contains the genetic material of the cell and is often referred to as the “command center” of the cell is the:
A. nucleolus.
B. nucleus.
C. mitochondrion.
D. chromosome. B
Locations on the cell surface at which cells are held together like “spot welds” are called:
A. tight junctions.
B. cell junctions.
C. desmosomes.
D. gap junctions. C
Which type of junction is formed when membrane channels of adjacent plasma membranes adhere to each other?
A. Tight junction
B. Cell junction
C. Desmosome
D. Gap junction D
Anatomy is defined as the study of the __________ of a living organism.
A. function
B. diseases
C. structure
D. growth C
Physiology is defined as the study of the __________ of a living organism.
A. function
B. diseases
C. structure
D. growth A
All of the following are characteristics of human life except:
A. growth.
B. responsiveness.
C. reproduction.
D. synthesis by scientists. D
The organization of the body begins at what level?
A. Organelle
B. Cellular
C. Chemical
D. System C
The term somatotype is used to describe:
A. physical condition.
B. body build.
C. structure.
D. function. B
The relatively constant state maintained by the body is known as:
A. anatomy.
B. physiology.
C. metabolism.
D. homeostasis. D
The reference position of the body when it is in an erect, or standing, posture with the arms at the sides and palms turned forward is called the _____ position.
A. bilateral
B. anatomical
C. symmetrical
D. ventral B
The space that encloses the brain and spinal cord forms one continuous cavity called the _____ cavity.
A. thoracic
B. dorsal
C. ventral
D. posterior
E. anterior B
The midline plane that divides the body into right and left halves is the _____ plane.
A. midsagittal
B. sagittal
C. transverse
D. coronal A
The body symmetry of human beings is:
A. unilateral.
B. medial.
C. bilateral.
D. asymmetrical. C
The plane that divides the body into front and back portions is the _____ plane.
A. sagittal
B. transverse
C. coronal
D. midsagittal C
The chest region of the body is called the:
A. thorax.
B. abdominal region.
C. pelvic region.
D. ventral region. A
The abdominopelvic cavity is subdivided into the _____ cavities.
A. thoracic and pelvic
B. abdominal and pelvic
C. thoracic and abdominal
D. dorsal and abdominal B
Regarding directional terms, superior means:
A. front.
B. back.
C. toward the head.
D. toward the feet. C
Pathophysiology is defined as the study of:
A. the structure of a living organism.
B. the function of a living organism.
C. the physiological processes of disease.
D. growth and development of the organism. C